The Quran and The Prohibiting of Pedophilia? Marriage Contracts

[WinterHold]

Probably because this verse says you can divorce women whether they have reached the age of period or not. According to Ibn Kathir the quran commentator mentions this means young female.

65:4
And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women - if you doubt, then their period is three months, and [also for] those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah - He will make for him of his matter ease.


Though i have seen some interpretations meaning that when Abu Bakr asked Muhammad to not marry Aisha til she was 9 or 10 (age of period), since at that time she was 6 or 7 could just mean that you should take people's advice and not marry til they are more mature. But that argument is also a tad bit void considering Muhammad recommended a guy to marry a young woman over an old one. But i guess biologically speaking this doesnt make too little sense. But just on a whole considering Quran allows you to divorce females who has not menustrated yet. I can assume... 12 like Turkey does.

I am not for it, but if i had a religious apologetic stance this is the closest to defense i could give it.

Why did your mind favored pedophilia, and didn't favor this instead?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Amenorrhea

There is already a medical condition -which is not rare- for the absence of period.
Your opinion makes no sense when we consider the verses in my OP; which you ignored totally; sadly.

Instead of the medical condition, you straight ahead ignore the context, the other verses in my OP, and just like any Sunni/Shiite Muslim: you favor the POV of an ancient scholar.

Look below in the link for the causes of "Amenorrhea":

Low body weight
Women who perform considerable amounts of exercise on a regular basis or lose a significant amount of weight are at risk of developing hypothalamic (or 'athletic') amenorrhoea. Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhoea (FHA) can be caused by stress, weight loss, and/or excessive exercise. Many women who diet or who exercise at a high level do not take in enough calories to expend on their exercise as well as to maintain their normal menstrual cycles.[7] The threshold of developing amenorrhoea appears to be dependent on low energy availability rather than absolute weight because a critical minimum amount of stored, easily mobilized energy is necessary to maintain regular menstrual cycles.[8]
Energy imbalance and weight loss can disrupt menstrual cycles through several hormonal mechanisms. Weight loss can cause elevations in the hormone ghrelin which inhibits the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarial axis.[9] Elevated concentrations of ghrelin alter the amplitude of GnRH pulses, which causes diminished pituitary release of LH and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).[10]

Doesn't it make sense, to to take the historical context of ancient Arabia too? famine and hunger was the rule of the day, don't forget that few years later the Plague of Justinian -was it before or after- came, later on the black death came, all are reasons to cause Amenorrhea.

But I find your favoring of Ibn Kathir's opinion pretty surprising, Amenorrhea makes more sense.

---

Islam was accused of legalizing pedophilia by many parties.
But this verse from the Quran says:




How could a child be a legal part of an official contract?
One rule of any contract is for both parts to be "past puberty", or to some nations "grown up enough". Islam is the first religion in my perspective that made a marriage contract mandatory; and since only people who passed puberty are allowed to be parts of contracts, Islam is the first religion to actually prohibits pedophilia.

Having sex without contract is considered "adultery":

And how many wives can we have?

If you feared to not be just with orphans; you can marry 4.

Yes; the only difference between an atheist and between "Osama" is that the first have 2 different lovers without an official contract, while the latter has "2 different lovers with an official contract".

Don't you find your comment ironic??

---

Does it say anything about puberty in the Quran?

As a nitpick, "paedophilia" is the attraction to pre-pubescent children, and as such you can't prohibit it by law (except by punishing people that you discover have such attractions, I suppose).

So, in both cases I'm a bigot: if I believe the Hadith then I'm a pedo, if I go against it and favor the Quran alone I'm contradictory with psychology?

I think attraction to children is what it is: pedophilia: a psychological trauma. And if the law doesn't prohibit it, then why's the big fuss about it in the media, literature, psychological medical field...etc?

Also, why are Sunni/Shiite Muslims criticized for punishing gays?

Pedophilia is terrible because of the psychological implications it has -just like homosexuality-. But I won't feel weird if pedophilia became normal tomorrow, as the example is with Japan.

---

His break is on-going.  

This thread is pointless.  The quran insists that you don;t have to marry a girl to fuck the dogshit out of her as long as you own her.  Did muslim slavers buy and sell young girls?  Why yes..yes they did.  

Why wouldn't they..lucrative market, niche product.

The one important note is that "Marriage in Islam is governed by a contract that requires the woman's compliance".