Ok, now I'm confused about the following:
The improper integral of 1/x from -e to e is said to diverge yet can be assigned a CPV value of 0.
Intuitively, the 0 answer makes sense (since symmetrically opposite areas, even infinite, should completely cancel each other out), but it's considered to be a problematic answer. Can anyone ELI5 why 0 is not always the right answer here? What does definite integral really mean then?
The improper integral of 1/x from -e to e is said to diverge yet can be assigned a CPV value of 0.
Intuitively, the 0 answer makes sense (since symmetrically opposite areas, even infinite, should completely cancel each other out), but it's considered to be a problematic answer. Can anyone ELI5 why 0 is not always the right answer here? What does definite integral really mean then?
