Oh no not another free will thread.

[Angrboda]

I heard an analogy a little while ago, just to add something to think about in the conversation.

A voting machine is rigged, so that no matter who is voted for, the machine will record Trump. A person goes into the booth, and votes for Trump. Now there was no possible way, that they could have voted otherwise (remember the machine is rigged). Did the persons inability to vote otherwise, effect their free will choice to choose Trump?

The solution to the enigma is in your very words. The person did not in fact 'vote' as to vote requires actually registering that vote, unless we are to make the term meaningless. That would be like saying that if a brick wall existed between you and I, and I reached out my hand and struck the wall, that I nonetheless touched you simply because I had the intention of touching you. If the machine did not accurately tally the person's intention, then they did not cast a vote. The machine did.