(June 1, 2018 at 2:37 pm)Anomalocaris Wrote:(June 1, 2018 at 2:28 pm)Alexmahone Wrote: There's really no reason for populations that have evolved in separate geographical regions and vary in the mean value of several phenotypic traits to have exactly the same mean IQ.
There is.
1. Most of the world’s populations were not really separated. There are continous gene flows across most large gene pools since the ice age. The only large population that may have remained generic largely separated from all the others were the native Amerindians. That separation came to a complete end in 1492. There is even direct evidence of evolutionarily advantageous genes sweeping across all the major populations in Eurasia in a matter of just a few thousand years to demonstrate the magnitude of gene flow.
2. There are two reasons why pheontypical traits diverge between populations: A. There is strong differences in the suitability of the pheontypical trait to different environments, so that different pheontypical trains are strongly selected for in different populations. B. The pheontypical trait is irrelevant to survival of the genes so they can gradually diverge in different population through gene drift with no selection pressure to bring them back together.
Do you deny the fact of substantial gene flow between major populations?
Do you suppose stupidity is selected for in one region where as intelligence is selected for in another? Or that intelligence doesn’t matter so different group can experience genetic drift that makes some of them more stupid than others without some common selection pressure to correct the decline?
East Asians and Whites have higher mean IQs than South Asians and Blacks because they evolved in much colder environments. Colder environments tend to be more cognitively demanding because one has to make needles/thread for clothing and find a way to preserve food as hunting animals everyday may not be possible.