Lets get rid of primary elections when electing our president

[RoadRunner79]

And I agree with your comment about the south and eligible voters.   That the point is to boost the say of those in lower population areas, where they me be drown out by the larger metropolis areas.   Which I think is good.  It is their President too.  I disagree however, with your trying to make it as if racism is a reason for the electoral college.

I am not "trying to make it as if racism is a reason for the electoral college" it's a fact.

Initially, James Wilson, a delegate at the 1787 Constitutional Convention, put forth direct election of the president but James Madison (President 1809-1817) pointed out that the South wouldn't go for that because “The right of suffrage was much more diffusive [i.e., extensive] in the Northern than the Southern States; and the latter could have no influence in the election on the score of Negroes.”  AKA: The Northern population outnumbered the Southern population, minus the half a million slaves.  So the Three-Fifths Compromise was enacted to mollify the South.

The Three-Fifths Compromise meant that Pennsylvania, which had 10% more free persons than Virginia, got 20% fewer electoral votes.  I.e. the more slaves any slave state bought or "bred", the more electoral votes that state would have.

It was because of the pro-slavery skew of the electoral college that 4 of our first 5 presidents were white, slave-owning Virginians, and it was that same pro-slavery skew was the difference-maker in electing Thomas Jefferson over John Adams (of Massachusetts) in 1801.  It was the electoral college votes granted to southern, pro-slave states that made the difference in that election.  The freed population of the South was not enough to elect Jefferson on its own.

To put it another way, "Thomas Jefferson metaphorically rode into the executive mansion on the backs of slaves."

I'm not making this shit up, it's American history.

Doesn't the principles still apply even without the issue of slavery though?   It's possibly a corollary explanation, but not a necessary one.  The reason is because they had less eligible voters,the "why" is secondary.   It doesn't make it a racist system.  The same reasoning still holds today, and nobody owns slaves.  And as you said, it is a compromise.  Areas with higher populations do have more electoral votes, and regions of the country with lower populations can't just be ignored.  Perhaps we can improve it, but I think that you will still need a compromise and popular vote is not necessarily better.