RE: Is God Altruistic? Is God Happy?
March 28, 2019 at 4:57 pm
(This post was last modified: March 28, 2019 at 5:26 pm by Acrobat.)
(March 28, 2019 at 4:30 pm)tackattack Wrote: I was wrong, and I apologize. I must have been dozing. According to Strong's concordance it means repeatable or consistent. And in context as Gae pointed out it doesn't connote that that he is incapable of changing how he feels, simply that He is the same God in the New Testament as all throughout the time span of the old.
Except of course Malachi can’t be referring to the NT, since he writing prior to it.
Secondly immutability not only stems from
scripture, but also by gods other attributes as well, such as by being eternal and omniscient, the verse if read literally implies gods is effected or changed by the actions of humans, actions he knew would take place before hand. So when did god feel hatred after the actions were performed, or when he knew the actions were going to take place?
We also seem to be at a crossroads, two verses from the same writers which can’t both be taken literally, or the negate what the writers said, you imply one is not literal and I suggest the other.