An odd question

[Mercyvessel]

A good question, and one akin to many - like how Job knew and declared between approximately 1635 – 1572 B.C. (the Book of Job historically occurring after the events in Genesis) - that GOD "...stretches out the north over empty space; He hangs the earth on nothing." - Job 26:7 (while Pythagoras was the first to propose a round Earth around 500 B.C. and Aristotle concluding the Earth is a sphere around 350 B.C.; talk much less of the later discovery that the Earth actually orbits the Sun).

The "historicity" of the Holy Bible is inextricably linked to the irrefutable prophecies therein.  Also, it is in fact many things good – history, the law, prophecy… the saving grace and power of GOD from detrimental judgment… “So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.” - Romans 10:17

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“…knowing this first, that no prophecy of Scripture is of any private interpretation, for prophecy never came by the will of man, but holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit.” - 2 Peter 1:20-21

Job was written much later than that. It was written sometime between the 7th and 4th centuries BCE with the most likely time in the 6th.

By that time, the understanding that the Earth is spherical was well distributed and the idea that it 'hung' on nothing was discussed.

But, of course, the Earth does NOT 'hang' at all. It moves.

Also, the idea that the sky was a dome, sphere, or tend spread out around the sperical Earth was the standard at the time. of course, that is also wrong.

Your timeline is incorrect, but putting that aside, tell me this... is it more probable or likely that the Earth "moves" (as you state) in the precise manner in which it has and does (like other planets in our galaxy) - particularly around the Sun - as a result of (1). some chance, or rather (2). some design and purpose?