(March 22, 2023 at 12:42 pm)FlatAssembler Wrote:(March 22, 2023 at 12:25 pm)The Grand Nudger Wrote: Right, so that is what you're asking, just in the context of a continued assertion or argument. The short answer is no, and obviously no.
How is it "obvious"? I don't see it. If that were true, p-values would not be valued in social sciences (or natural sciences, for that matter), right?
I'm confident that you either can or will be able to understand why other people not making the same mistake you make doesn't make them more wrong than you. Honestly, the question doesn't even make sense does it?
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