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Can bible really be interpreted as if there is no torment but you cease to exist
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RE: Can bible really be interpreted as if there is no torment but you cease to exist
(February 8, 2012 at 9:54 am)Rhythm Wrote: Mark 10:17 "And when he was gone forth into the way, there came one running, and kneeled to him, and asked him, Good Master, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life? 18 And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God."

Jesus just denied the divinity of christ, which is.....as far as I'm aware...sinful blasphemy..lol.

In that quote Jesus is challenging the man to think directly about whether he thought Jesus was God or not. It's like saying, "Why do you call me one who raises people from the dead? Only God raises from the dead." And all the while we know Jesus did raise people from the dead. The Jews culturally spoke this way in Jesus' day--it was their way of equating themselves to something. Historians actually consider this line a claim of the divinity, because by all accounts Jesus was good, and therefore he is God.

If you want an even clearer declaration, read John 10:24-38.

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RE: Can bible really be interpreted as if there is no torment but you cease to exist - by Undeceived - February 8, 2012 at 3:41 pm

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