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Can bible really be interpreted as if there is no torment but you cease to exist
#83
RE: Can bible really be interpreted as if there is no torment but you cease to exist
(February 9, 2012 at 5:24 am)tackattack Wrote: I define someone (or something) as evil if they do something morally wrong or bad.

Thank you tackattack. Your definition is very sensible and reasonable. It also agrees with many dictionary definitions; so all English speakers should agree with you.

Sadly there may be times when killing someone is a reasonable, moral punishment for their crime. However, I think we would ALL agree that murder of innocent people is 'doing something morally wrong or bad' - by your definition 'evil'. Thus by your own definition God is evil.

I presume you don't really need me to list out the mass murders by God or the people he killed or severely punished even though they had done nothing wrong (servants, children, townsfolk, etc)?

Oddly, I don't remember any example of Satan killing anyone. I'm told that he looks after the people who don't want to worship God, so that can't be morally wrong. Does that mean Satan is not
evil but God is evil?
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RE: Can bible really be interpreted as if there is no torment but you cease to exist - by Aardverk - February 10, 2012 at 5:04 am

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