(May 6, 2012 at 6:06 pm)Aegrus Wrote: Or this. . .To your first one here is the Hebrew interlinear...
"A priest's daughter who loses her honor by committing fornication and thereby dishonors her father also, shall be burned to death." (Leviticus 21:9 NAB)
Or this, since you say that slavery in the bible is nothing like more recent slavery . . .
"When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property." (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB)
All of those quotes I listed are clearly written as orders. They are not technically commandments, but the bible is clearly directing its readers on how to behave.
"And the daughter of any priest, if she profane herself by playing the whore, she profaneth her father: she shall be burnt with fire"
It doesn't actually say "burned to death" or even how she is to be burned to be fair. But I not verse din Hebrew to really break it down.
To your second point...it basically says if a man strike his 'slave" and the slave dies he shall be avenged (Hebrew interlinear). What happened in America when if a slave master killed a slave...buy a new one? Also keep in mind if a slave was injured in any way, he could have his freedom. Did America operate like that? Nope.