(August 31, 2012 at 10:40 am)stephenmills1000 Wrote: This does not make any sense to me, for a moral value serves the purpose of the prescriber of said moral value. How would that value have any purpose independently of its prescriber? Is it to say these ideas, like 'good,' just exists on its own?
Allow me to demonstrate by example. The purpose of a knife is to cut. A prescriber is not required if the objective is inherent to the object itself. Another example would be - one of the purposes of science is to discover and explain truths about nature. While there may have been a prescriber originally who developed the philosophical basis for this very purpose, he is no longer required and the purpose has become inherent to the object itself.
(August 31, 2012 at 10:40 am)stephenmills1000 Wrote: Correct, as it does apply to God, for he is in fact independent of all entities, thus would be objective as you define.
Your hypothetical god may exist independently from all entities, but his morality is still dependent on him and is therefore subjective. We are not talking about the objectivity of god but that of his morality.