RE: Where do atheists get their morality from?
September 16, 2012 at 6:51 am
(This post was last modified: September 16, 2012 at 7:15 am by Angrboda.)
(September 16, 2012 at 2:13 am)Undeceived Wrote:(September 15, 2012 at 3:19 pm)apophenia Wrote:Romans 2:14-15
Quote:In Romans 2:14, the Apostle Paul said that the Gentiles, who had not received the law [of Moses] or, in other words, a revelation from God, had nevertheless sometimes done "by nature the things of the law" and were therefore "a law unto themselves."
If this doesn't mean that Paul believed that the Gentiles who had no divine revelation had discovered morality on their own, then pray tell what does it mean?
—
Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law. They show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness.
Judging by the context, the Gentiles did stumble upon God's predetermined morality. When they were given the scriptures, they were pleasantly surprised to find that their consciences already agreed with its ethics.
So, it was in the nature of humans to be moral, regardless of the law. Was that nature a part of their material, corporeal existence, or was it rather a part of their incorporeal soul? (I don't recall, is the heart a part of the body, the soul, or something else?)
(September 15, 2012 at 11:19 pm)Polaris Wrote: Back then, there wasn't a concept as secular morality. The two were the same, religion was at the center of life because it provided a common link between members of tribes and tribes themselves. Secularism is a recent phenomena and using it to describe societies of the past will likely lead you to confusion because you notice evidence that does not point to secular societies but rather to societies centered upon primitive worship and laws derived to adapt to this worship.
Did you actually just claim to know what the social life of humans living 70,000 years ago was like? I believe that you did. Even your own source asserts that religious ritual is universally used to define the sacred and separate it from the profane, essentially meaning that wherever there is the religious, there is also the secular, by definition. So exactly how is it that you, 70,000 years later, know that there wasn't a secular concept of morality then? How do you know, 70,000 years later, that the religious concept of morality didn't come after the secular? How is it you know such specific details about the social life of humans 70,0000 years ago? Where exactly does this knowledge of yours come from?
![[Image: extraordinarywoo-sig.jpg]](https://i.postimg.cc/zf86M5L7/extraordinarywoo-sig.jpg)