Considering that the appalling acts in the OT are part of the bible, then how is it not cherry-picking to brush them a side? Does Jesus not support the OT in anyway? Am I wrong in reading that Jesus supported the OT?
I said that Christians disagree on their definitions. Well, an example of that would be any Christian that fell into the NTS fallacy and said that other Christians weren't really Christians...but perhaps I said the wrong thing. What I mean is the fact that Christians interpret the bible in different ways, and while it may be considered Unchristian to do such appalling acts, how could you say Christians aren't Christians for doing them...when such acts are condoned in the OT, which I thought Jesus himself supported?
EDIT: Corrected the beginning of the post because I left gibberish in. It made no sense at all, as Arcanus pointed out.
EvF
I said that Christians disagree on their definitions. Well, an example of that would be any Christian that fell into the NTS fallacy and said that other Christians weren't really Christians...but perhaps I said the wrong thing. What I mean is the fact that Christians interpret the bible in different ways, and while it may be considered Unchristian to do such appalling acts, how could you say Christians aren't Christians for doing them...when such acts are condoned in the OT, which I thought Jesus himself supported?
EDIT: Corrected the beginning of the post because I left gibberish in. It made no sense at all, as Arcanus pointed out.
EvF
