Made in Alexandria: The Origin of the Yahweh Cult

[Aractus]

Last time you claimed they were both old and discredited and I challenged you to post the discreditations. You produced no discreditations but repeat your nonsense claim they are old. Again, you knowingly and willfully lie about what I post. You are clearly a dishonest person.

You are pathetic. You resort to labelling me as something I'm not because you are unable to substantiate any of your claims. You can't substantiate them because you actually have no idea of what you're talking about. I have pointed this out to you time and time again, you are nothing, your claims are empty, without evidence. Bart Ehrman and the others at least present evidence for their claims - you do nothing of the sort. In fact what you do do is claim that all the real evidence is not evidence because your conclusion requires it so. That is completely circular reasoning. Evidence doesn't "prove" a particular conclusion ANM, it speaks about what we know about it.

For instance, let me tell you about my favourite example on this - the Egyptian Pyramids. For well over two thousands years historians believed that the Pyramids were built by slaves. This was based on one piece of evidence. The evidence was totally wrong, as it turns out, and how did we discover this? With new evidence of course. Now we know that the pyramids were built by Egyptian workers - not slaves.

You are the liar - you have absolutely no evidence, all you do is attack the evidence that you are presented with. It's fine to attack evidence critically - if you either have other evidence, or if you can show why a piece of evidence is questionable. You can do neither.

You have at best pointed out Origen only used 46 of them. We know there were more scrolls on the theme. Origen has no particular authority. His material just happens to be among that which survived. You fail to notice the Hexapla has no odd scroll out documents. It only includes material which exists in all the languages. Things that do not exist in all the languages -- that he found/included/arbitrary not definitive -- are not included.

You are wrong on this. We do not know that the Apocrypha was ever in Hebrew. Some of it may have been, what we do know - and I'm pointing this out to you now for your information - is the first time we find the Apocrypha is the Hexapla. As for you questioning why I'm calling them "Apocrypha" - that's the term used by Jerome.

Since the earliest is from the 11th c. AD long after the Christian collection was made canonical I do not see why that surprises you.

And yet you actually have - zero evidence - that between the first century BC and the second century any text was lost. None, no evidence at all. Yes there are small sections of text known to be missing in the MT, however nothing you've presented shows why it could have occurred after the time of Christ and not before.

Since the earliest is from the 11th c. AD long after the Christian collection was made canonical I do not see why that surprises you. Why would not the Christian and rabbinical sects of Judaism compete and copy each other?

That's the stupidest argument I've ever heard of.

You Jesus was a fucking, illiterate peasant too. Why would you think otherwise? Why you would LIE about, MAKE UP reading temple scrolls is just you faith controlling your reality. Perhaps you are schizophrenic.

Bring some evidence - which you don't have.

BTW: The DSS have neither jots nor tittles. They first appear in the Masoretic.

The "Jot" or "Yodh" is the fourth letter of the Tetragrammaton, are you telling me the DSS don't have the Tetragrammaton??? Tittle doesn't refer to dots or vowel points as you seem to believe FYI.

The definition of complete can only exist after codices are invented as all educated people know.

Codices date back to the time of Julius Caesar. But that doesn't prove your point anyway.