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If 0.999(etc) = 1, does 1 - 0.999 go to zero?
#26
RE: If 0.999(etc) = 1, does 1 - 0.999 go to zero?
(February 20, 2013 at 3:10 pm)pocaracas Wrote: I always thought that x-dx != x, but you guys seem to be onto something.... .... ....
It seems dx is much larger than 0.000(etc)1.

PS: x is a real number; dx is an infinitesimal part of x.
!= means "not equals"

Umm... No. Actually,
[Image: gif.latex?\LARGE%20d[f(x)]%20=%20\lim_{h...(x)-f(x-h)]

That's how we get...
[Image: gif.latex?\LARGE%20\frac{d[f(x)]}{dx}%20...f(x-h)}{h}]

dx isn't a number. d is an operator that maps functions to functions. The ratios of these functions produce the derivative.

And for the record...
[Image: gif.latex?\large%200.\overline{0}1%20=%2...n}%20=%200]
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Messages In This Thread
If 0.999(etc) = 1, does 1 - 0.999 go to zero? - by Euler - January 26, 2013 at 7:59 pm
RE: If 0.999(etc) = 1, does 1 - 0.999 go to zero? - by Venom7513 - April 30, 2013 at 10:06 am

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