Question on the Validity of Jesus

[Esquilax]

This section of Scripture does two things. It establishes that the OT law is still in effect, and that we need a righteousness greater than what the scribes and pharisees had by following the letter of the law.

We later find out the only way for one's righteousness to exceed that of the scribe and pharisees is through the attonement Christ offered.

And that's where we run aground, because the sole use of a law is to be obeyed; as a concept, that's what it's for. If you're no longer required to obey them, in what sense are these laws extant at all?

Imagine if this was done today: what would happen if your given government introduced a law against the eating of pickles, yet amends this law so that it isn't going to be enforced, nor are you required to obey it. Wouldn't your first reaction be "well, what's the point, then?"

The old testament laws are in effect, in the sense that they absolutely aren't.

Not if we have been provided a way to escape conviction that costs us nothing.

I don't think your life and soul count as nothing, Drich. And I use the term soul in a poetic way, before we get into that.

the laws were not set up for us to obey. (That is why there was animal sacrfice in the OT, and Christ in the New.) The Law was only ever designed to establish the Expressed will of God, and His righteousness or standard that is required for us to be with Him for eternity.

So how did people in the old testament gain entry into heaven, if the laws were both impossible to obey, and not a requirement to be obeyed, but without the help of Jesus' sacrifice?

The 'loop hole' was always apart of the plan. which means by defination it is not a loop hole.

I submit to you that this is a nonsensical plan.