Hello,
I am new here and I registered because I have a question about one of those quran miracles. Most of them I consider to be complete bullshit but there is one which still gives me trouble to get my head around. In short it goes like this.
The title "pharaoh" was introduced around 1400 BCE to refer to egyptian Kings. Before that, the rulers of egypt were simply called "king". Although the bible uses both terms (king/pharaoh) interchangibly, regardless to which period in egypt the stories are referring to.
In opposite to that, the quran uses in the Story of Joseph which refers to an egyptian ruler around 1700 BCE only the word "King" to refer to the ruler of egypt and NEVER the term "pharaoh".
On the other hand, in the story about moses (around 1300 BCE), the quran uses the word "pharaoh" to refer to the ruler there.
Since mohammad lived in the 7th century he could have not possibly known that, since the egyptian empire has fallen long time ago and the the time between mohammad and this historical fact is just too long; furthermore the historical documents the arabs used were the bible and tora in which the terminology is wrong,
but somehow the quran manages to be on spot with the terminology throughout the entire book. So how can this be, what rational explanations are there for that?
Thank you for your help, really appreciate it.
I am new here and I registered because I have a question about one of those quran miracles. Most of them I consider to be complete bullshit but there is one which still gives me trouble to get my head around. In short it goes like this.
The title "pharaoh" was introduced around 1400 BCE to refer to egyptian Kings. Before that, the rulers of egypt were simply called "king". Although the bible uses both terms (king/pharaoh) interchangibly, regardless to which period in egypt the stories are referring to.
In opposite to that, the quran uses in the Story of Joseph which refers to an egyptian ruler around 1700 BCE only the word "King" to refer to the ruler of egypt and NEVER the term "pharaoh".
On the other hand, in the story about moses (around 1300 BCE), the quran uses the word "pharaoh" to refer to the ruler there.
Since mohammad lived in the 7th century he could have not possibly known that, since the egyptian empire has fallen long time ago and the the time between mohammad and this historical fact is just too long; furthermore the historical documents the arabs used were the bible and tora in which the terminology is wrong,
but somehow the quran manages to be on spot with the terminology throughout the entire book. So how can this be, what rational explanations are there for that?
Thank you for your help, really appreciate it.
