(December 30, 2013 at 4:30 pm)A-g-n-o-s-t-i-c Wrote: You must see what is the arabic word used for (king).
the arbaic word is "malik" malik = king
the arabic word in moses story is "firawn" firawn = pharao
pharao(greek) = pr-aa(egyptian)
king/malik = nesut/nisut (egyptian)
so at the time of Joseph (if he actually existed) the quran uses the word "malik=king=nesut", in the moses story the quran uses the word "firawn=pharaoh=pr-aa". I do not understand how it is a viable objection to say that it is wrong just because the quran does not use the original egyptian word.


