(January 14, 2014 at 8:13 pm)Cthulhu Dreaming Wrote:Why was the first post a clear violation of the spamming rule?(January 14, 2014 at 8:06 pm)Waratah Wrote: Thanks for clearing some of that up.
Would you agree that the third post was the first spam violation since it was the first duplication?
So the user was banned due to the second advertisement?
Would you agree that there was no need to investigate the users outside activities since the users outside activities were irrelevant?
No, the first was a clear violation - and is often enough to justify a ban. It depends on the circumstances. If it was a clear hit-and-run post, it would have been. The second made it instaban-worthy.
I would agree that it is rarely necessary or relavent to investigate outside activity. In a case where a member reports that they've seen an apparent copy-pasta elsewhere, yes we're going to at least look into it, if only to add additional confirmation to what we already have learned.
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