(March 3, 2014 at 2:25 pm)discipulus Wrote:(March 3, 2014 at 2:03 pm)Deidre32 Wrote: So, since we hear lots of folks tout how the US was founded on Christian principles, is that why slavery and the oppression of women lasted so long?
Christian principles. Yep.
Let's not forget those "contributions."
Again, it is a simple fact and not in dispute that some men have used the new testament to give credence to their particular practices and views which were called into question by their peers.
I do not deny this. In fact I positively affirm that this has happened. It still happens today.
For example, some slave masters in the ante bellum period used the new testament as sort of a "God has said it that means I can do it and nothing you say will move me" justification for participating in the slave trade.
The question remains: was their use of scripture in regards to the slave trade a justifiable application of said scriptures? Clearly not. The letter of Paul to Philemon is a letter written specifically for the purpose of telling us how Christians are to treat one another within the historical context of societies that engaged in indentured servitude and slavery.
You err in equating the transatlantic slave trade of the antebellum period with the indentured servitude and slavery of New Testament times. The two are to say the least, dissimilar.
That's a lot of "misinterpreting" of "scripture," wouldn't you say? Considering that the majority of US Presidents have been Christian. Some of them owning slaves, themselves. Hmmmm....
And then there's the question of homosexuals not being permitted to marry, legally. Was the law that put into place that only one man and one woman be legally allowed to marry, ANOTHER "misinterpretation?"
And women weren't legally given the right to vote until roughly 100 years ago.
Another "misinterpretation?"
Or could it be that the Bible has been a useful tool for heterosexual white men who have been running the US, to excuse away their own immorality, bigotry and hatred?