(March 27, 2010 at 12:05 am)tackattack Wrote: How exactly is a term or definition self-aware enough to be ignorant padriac?
I probably expressed myself poorly,and am not sure if I'm capable of expressing myself clearly,I'll have another go:
'Ignoarance' is a relative term.The closest we come to a person who is 'not ignorant' is th polymath,or the Renaissance man. However those terms are only relative to other in the same broad.
In accusing another of being; ignorant,I'm implying I am not,which is untrue. Hence I;m denying my own ignorance. I hope the reasoning is clear,even if you disagree.
I welcome correction of any error of logic,but not so much an argument about the truth of my premise ,which I assert as true only for the sake of argument.
