Vatican Embassy Protestor

[Esquilax]

Actually, the question was about its plausibilty, not whether or not it happened.

Surely you must recognize that the latter is a great indicator of the former. I get that you're talking about the consistency of a belief framework, and that given the acceptance of other supernatural phenomena, it's not that great a leap to begin accepting more, but "why not?" isn't a reason in itself. Each claim can actually be approached on its own, and just because resurrections and virgin births are consistent with a worldview featuring magic, doesn't mean there is reasonable justification for bolting those claims onto the initial magic claim. Frankly, given the circuitous absurdity of the motivation behind the Jesus story, one could easily provide an argument as to why the existence of the kind of god the Catholics believe should make the virgin birth and resurrection narrative of the new testament less plausible and not more.

That kind of god would be smarter than that.

With regards to the original question, are you suggesting that Jesus' dividing the Jewish community WAS by design? That he was trying to get people to disagree with him?

Given the actual words stated in the bible... yes, division was on Jesus' agenda.

The crux of the issue seems to be that you weren't following the conversation.
No matter WHO is elected to be the pope, that person gets papal infallibility.

So is the pope infallible or not? Your position seems to be that he turns it on and off like a tap, but how the hell does that work? If he's elected by fallible humans alone, as you indicated, then how does he suddenly become infallible? Or is this just infallibility by fiat assertion?

I understand what you're saying, it just baffles me as to how that works.