(April 16, 2015 at 2:24 pm)Heywood Wrote: Suppose a person is sexually attracted to children. Is that morally wrong? No. Molesting children is morally wrong. Its the behavior that matters. If we can expect pedophiles not act on their attractions because they are morally wrong, then homosexuals can be expected not to act on their attractions if they are morally wrong.
Oh yes, I wondered when that would crop up. Raises it's ugly head every time when some halfwit tries to be clever. Maybe, just maybe you know the difference between consenting adults and peadophilia. One is noone else's business, the other is a crime. But thanks for the stupid analogy.