Hey! I have some dumbass questions that many of you could probably answer.
Is an infinite supply of information necessary for some being to be considered omniscient?
If there is a limited supply of information, and a being knows all of that information, would it be considered omniscient, even though it has a limit?
My gut reaction would be to say that if a universe is that of one with a limited supply of information, then any being that knows all of it would be considered omniscient within that universe, but I'm still not sure if that being would be considered omniscient by definition, or, if it knows it has a limit, that it would know what might be beyond its limits. Seems to be "no". Does that go on to say that for a being to be considered omniscient, existence has to be infinite?
Is an infinite supply of information necessary for some being to be considered omniscient?
If there is a limited supply of information, and a being knows all of that information, would it be considered omniscient, even though it has a limit?
My gut reaction would be to say that if a universe is that of one with a limited supply of information, then any being that knows all of it would be considered omniscient within that universe, but I'm still not sure if that being would be considered omniscient by definition, or, if it knows it has a limit, that it would know what might be beyond its limits. Seems to be "no". Does that go on to say that for a being to be considered omniscient, existence has to be infinite?
I can't remember where this verse is from, I think it got removed from canon:
"I don't hang around with mostly men because I'm gay. It's because men are better than women. Better trained, better equipped...better. Just better! I'm not gay."
For context, this is the previous verse:
"Hi Jesus" -robvalue
"I don't hang around with mostly men because I'm gay. It's because men are better than women. Better trained, better equipped...better. Just better! I'm not gay."
For context, this is the previous verse:
"Hi Jesus" -robvalue
