(September 16, 2010 at 1:05 pm)tackattack Wrote:(September 13, 2010 at 6:31 pm)theVOID Wrote:
I am not farmiliar with the arguement and don't really have time to research it. I think I stopped at post 12, only for time constraints, but here's my opinion on the OP.
It is an uninformed dichotomy and given the options present I would choose 1. I believe 2 is also true. Morality, however as this is leading to is, is defined as subjective morality while we're trying to explain that God is an objective morality thus it's more along the lines of an equivocation fallacy. I don't get my subjective morals from God, but from myself. Then there are societal morals by which a society calls itself civilized. I do however model my morality towards the objective moraility of God rather to the shifting virtues of society.
Thanks for actually answering the question coherently, you could teach these theist kids a thing or two

Let shift this explicitly to authoritative morality - Is god the authoritative and final source for what is morally good? I know you get your morality from yourself, this is a given and acknowledges your morality is not necessarily that of God, but when this is considered "wrong" morality rather than "subjective" morality, do you still see all final decisions about what is morally good and morally evil down to the judgement of God?
And if that is the case then would it be fair to say that because morality is judged by God if there were a hypothetical god who judged rape moral then in that possible world rape would in fact be moral? Or perhaps a more close-to-home example, If Yahweh does actually think eating shellfish is immoral does this actually make eating shellfish immoral?
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