(May 21, 2015 at 9:55 am)Rhythm Wrote:Quote:That is that the behaviors which are justified lack a rigid standard such that people don't just 'rationalize their behavior as being good' regardless of the content of that behavior.Firstly, I don't see why an internally set standard should be more or less rigid than an externally set standard? Is this assumption required?
Point taken. I'm assuming the internal standard is loose rather than rigid. But that leaves us with an empirical question. Are our internal standards loose enough to prevent us from ever actualizing virtue, if morality is in fact consisting only of believing oneself to be good?
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