(June 8, 2015 at 9:51 pm)Randy Carson Wrote: Why would copies of gospels circulate anonymously all over the Roman empire for decades and then suddenly be ascribed to the authors we know today unanimously without dispute in the second century?
How do you know that they lacked attribution?
(June 8, 2015 at 9:51 pm)Randy Carson Wrote: When the gospels were being read in the liturgy, how would they have been distinguished one from another if they did not have names such as “The Gospel of Mark” or “The Gospel According to Luke”?
Oh, so they did have attribution?
(June 8, 2015 at 9:51 pm)Randy Carson Wrote: Why attribute a gospel to someone who had a somewhat dubious track record (like Mark who abandoned Paul on a missionary journey) unless it was true that Mark wrote it?
Perhaps because attributing the True Faith® to someone who had appeared to have fallen away would lend a louder ring of "truth"?
