RE: What IS good, and how do we determine it?
June 26, 2015 at 2:09 am
(This post was last modified: June 26, 2015 at 2:15 am by robvalue.)
Wait, wait...
If there is supposed to be this objective morality which comes from God that he has somehow implanted in us so we know things like rape and slavery are wrong, why was he implanting people at the time of Jesus with a different set of morals so that they clearly didn't think or know slavery and rape are wrong? If God had just given them the morality they need, as is being claimed he does now, how come they so easily ignored it back then... and if it's so easy to ignore, seemingly dependent on the point in history you are at, then what's the point of it? Why has it taken 2000 years for it to "work properly"? Yes, even in the NT slavery is discussed as an ongoing practice and never criticised.
Did he have to use some sort of "learning curve" of morality? And if so, why on earth would he have to? If he's just putting the morality straight into you, why exactly would it not work back then as it does now? If God is going to blame the creation again, he's just blaming himself. If the excuse is they had "strayed" then how did they give God the slip for so long in order to have time to stray?
I don't expect answers really, just pointing out that this idea falls apart under any kind of close inspection and we're reduced to making excuses for why an extremely powerful God is getting outwitted by a bunch of Bronze Age barbarians.
If there is supposed to be this objective morality which comes from God that he has somehow implanted in us so we know things like rape and slavery are wrong, why was he implanting people at the time of Jesus with a different set of morals so that they clearly didn't think or know slavery and rape are wrong? If God had just given them the morality they need, as is being claimed he does now, how come they so easily ignored it back then... and if it's so easy to ignore, seemingly dependent on the point in history you are at, then what's the point of it? Why has it taken 2000 years for it to "work properly"? Yes, even in the NT slavery is discussed as an ongoing practice and never criticised.
Did he have to use some sort of "learning curve" of morality? And if so, why on earth would he have to? If he's just putting the morality straight into you, why exactly would it not work back then as it does now? If God is going to blame the creation again, he's just blaming himself. If the excuse is they had "strayed" then how did they give God the slip for so long in order to have time to stray?
I don't expect answers really, just pointing out that this idea falls apart under any kind of close inspection and we're reduced to making excuses for why an extremely powerful God is getting outwitted by a bunch of Bronze Age barbarians.
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Index of useful threads and discussions
Index of my best videos
Quickstart guide to the forum