(July 14, 2015 at 8:12 pm)Dystopia Wrote: Hey Americans I have a question and I'm hoping to understand this better:
It's great gay marriage is now legal, but how does a court (judicial power) pass a law dictating something (legislative power)? I don't understand this. Isn't this a gross violation of separation of powers? How can a court even legalize something?Sorry if the question is stupid.
In a nutshell: The legislature writes laws, the President signs them into law, and the courts strike them when they violate the Constitution.
It isn't so much the court writing law as it is striking down unconstitutional law.