(April 11, 2010 at 11:28 pm)tavarish Wrote: Jesus.
Duh.
No.
(April 11, 2010 at 11:29 pm)Dotard Wrote: I'll bite.
1.
No.
(April 11, 2010 at 11:29 pm)The_Flying_Skeptic Wrote: I guess the answer depends on what kind of number. the first natural number after 0 is 1. The first real number after 0 has to be undefined.
Indeed, and you got the answer. The first real number (so the very first) after 0 is completely undefined. Our numeric system is very bizarre
(April 11, 2010 at 11:48 pm)theblindferrengi Wrote: how about (1-0.999r) ?
Well considering that 0.999r equals 1, that would be 1-1 which is 0, so no.