(October 29, 2012 at 10:10 am)Rhythm Wrote: Meh, at some point the majority of land sold is "undeveloped" how then do we apply this definition of ownership when no work has gone into it (though admittedly currency has been exchanged in procurement of the deed or title). How was that initial ownership established?
At some point, all of the land was undeveloped. That is my point. The justification for initial ownership for anything - not just land - is absent. You can come up with some half-assed justifications like,
a) The first to find it.
b) The government within whose territory it lies.
c) The first to develop it
d) The best person to develop it and so on
But these are not well-thought out.
