RE: From atheism to Christianity? How so?
December 26, 2013 at 4:37 pm
(This post was last modified: December 26, 2013 at 4:56 pm by Ksa.)
(December 26, 2013 at 4:26 pm)agapelove Wrote:(December 26, 2013 at 4:08 pm)Ksa Wrote: John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Is plagiarism! It has no religious value. These are NOT the words of Jesus. Who's words? JOHN! Where did John copy those from? Philo of Alexandria, who had written them even before John and Jesus were born. So you can't accept these words as the words of God, or the words of John or Jesus, they are the words of a jerk-off! So, once a thief, always a thief, the words of John are nil.
Could you give a citation that it was stolen please? Remember that John was writing in Greek and so he was using their vocabulary to communicate these ideas. There is currently no reason to doubt his eye witness testimony is sincere, and you'll find a lot of what we understand about historical figures comes from eye witness testimony. You might want to check out this article:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_...eliability
Let's say for arguments sake that the text is reliable. Is the counter argument not a plausible explanation for the apparent contradiction? If not, why not?
Ok no problem
Do you know Greek? What's the Greek word for God in the quotation "and the Word was With God"? It's Hotheos. Which means? The God. We accept this with a capital G so Hotheos is rendered the god with small g which in turn is rendered God. Correct?
What about the second portion "and the Word was God"? The word is Tontheos, meaning a god. So according to your system you should have spelled the second term with a small g and not a capital G.
And in 2 Corinthians 4:4 you dishonestly reverse the system using a small g to spell God! And the devil is the god of this world. The Greek word is Hotheos as in John 1:1. It should have been the God. Why be inconsistent in your translation?