(May 28, 2015 at 8:29 am)Nestor Wrote: Ref. Post #518: If you accept the idea that the  Illuminati wrote the Bible then all of the discrepancies make sense. The New World Order writers included all of those discrepancies on purpose to show that understood in an allegorical sense and pieced together like a map, the Bible contains a hidden message that points towards the lost city of Atlantis. They did it because the reptilian people were in conflict with their apish subjects. It was just an elaborate prank since the reptilians didn't have a single book to communicate their secret agenda to the elites. When they wrote the Bible as a gift to Satan the Supreme Leader, they simply included a lot of insider clues because humans would never figure it out.

That's the real story.

It's about time you got it.  How are you coming with producing the fairy tale in ancient Greek?

(May 29, 2015 at 12:43 am)Wyrd of Gawd Wrote:

(May 28, 2015 at 8:29 am)Nestor Wrote: Ref. Post #518: If you accept the idea that the  Illuminati wrote the Bible then all of the discrepancies make sense. The New World Order writers included all of those discrepancies on purpose to show that understood in an allegorical sense and pieced together like a map, the Bible contains a hidden message that points towards the lost city of Atlantis. They did it because the reptilian people were in conflict with their apish subjects. It was just an elaborate prank since the reptilians didn't have a single book to communicate their secret agenda to the elites. When they wrote the Bible as a gift to Satan the Supreme Leader, they simply included a lot of insider clues because humans would never figure it out.

That's the real story.

It's about time you got it.  How are you coming with producing the fairy tale in ancient Greek?

To be honest, it's quite fascinating to read about this mythological character named Philo of Alexandria that the English invented for the role of writing fictitious commentaries on their 14th century Pentateuch.

(May 29, 2015 at 1:27 am)Nestor Wrote:

(May 29, 2015 at 12:43 am)Wyrd of Gawd Wrote: It's about time you got it.  How are you coming with producing the fairy tale in ancient Greek?

To be honest, it's quite fascinating to read about this mythological character named Philo of Alexandria that the English invented for the role of writing fictitious commentaries on their 14th century Pentateuch.

I'm not familiar with Philo other than he supposedly croaked around 50AD.  I wonder how such a character's manuscripts could have survived all of the centuries of turmoil in Egypt? He must have chiseled them on the pyramids.    Have you ever wondered what Jews were called before the letter "J" was invented  in 1524?

(May 29, 2015 at 2:50 am)Wyrd of Gawd Wrote: I'm not familiar with Philo other than he supposedly croaked around 50AD.  I wonder how such a character's manuscripts could have survived all of the centuries of turmoil in Egypt? He must have chiseled them on the pyramids.    Have you ever wondered what Jews were called before the letter "J" was invented  in 1524?

Not particularly. I like to spend my days productively, asking myself questions such as how many rubber bands does it take to cut a watermelon in half.

(May 27, 2015 at 9:24 pm)Wyrd of Gawd Wrote: Ref. Post #516:  If you accept the idea that the English wrote the Bible then all of the discrepancies make sense.  The English writers included all of those discrepancies on purpose to show that the Bible was nonsense.  They did it because Christianity was in conflict with their traditional Druid beliefs.  It was just an elaborate prank since the Christians didn't have a single book for all of their stories.  When they wrote the Bible as a gift to the Pope they simply included a lot of insider jokes because the Pope and his gang would never figure it out.

The Persians first named the region "Yehud" when they found themselves in control of it after taking Babylon.  They did not have a "J" sound either.

The Romans called it Hierosolyma before they leveled it.  Afterwards they called it Aelia Capitolina.

The Philo question is actually quite interesting.  His writings were preserved by xtians who probably did not understand them but he had a tendency to hellenize jewish thinking so maybe they thought he was one of them?

(May 29, 2015 at 12:17 pm)Minimalist Wrote: The Philo question is actually quite interesting.  His writings were preserved by xtians who probably did not understand them but he had a tendency to hellenize jewish thinking so maybe they thought he was one of them?

That seems plausible. It's remarkable to see how similar his thought is to the the New Testament writings, though clearly he was ignorant of his Christian counterparts whom he would have probably perceived as quite impious for their vulgar superstitions and interpretations of holy Mosaic texts. 

Perhaps "they" copied Philo?  We know that there was intellectual tension between Hellenized Jews and, let's call them "fundie" jews as far back as the Seleucid Empire days.

(May 29, 2015 at 1:06 pm)Minimalist Wrote: Perhaps "they" copied Philo?  We know that there was intellectual tension between Hellenized Jews and, let's call them "fundie" jews as far back as the Seleucid Empire days.

It's certainly possible that the theology concurrent in Christian works, particularly Hebrews, John's Gospel, and the Pauline epistles, borrowed from Philo's writings, but I think it's more likely that they are just part of a larger tradition in Judaism that was becoming more mainstream as Jews intermingled with Greeks.

Um Randy? Could we have a little rebuttal on the subject of why you think the gospels reflect eyewitness testimony or why eyewitness testimony is sufficient to prove extraordinary claims? Or do you concede?