Is 10,000 people suffering identically equal bad as one of them?

[theVOID]

As I have already explained, if more people suffering equally can be worse than less of them then that means that quantity alone can outweigh the quality of suffering.

You've used two different examples. For the sake of clarity I will call them Ex1 and Ex2.

Quality (x) = Amount of suffering experience by individual
Quantity (n) = Number of individuals suffering x.
Quality (x) * Quantity (n) = Total suffering (t)

As for the rest, it depends on which one of the two very different examples you used.

Ex1:
Group 1: n = 1, x = 1
Group 2: n = 10,000 x = 1

Group 1 (1*1x) < Group 2 (10,000*1x)

Ex2:
Group 1: n = 1, x = 10,000
Group 2: n = 10,000 x = 1

Group 1 (1*10,000x) = Group 2 (10,000*1x)

When the suffering is the only value considered, in Ex1 Group 2 contains more total suffering, in Ex2 both groups have equal total suffering.

Before we get any further, do you agree with that proof?