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October 10, 2015 at 10:43 pm (This post was last modified: October 10, 2015 at 10:46 pm by Pyrrho.)
(October 10, 2015 at 6:20 pm)MTL Wrote:
(October 10, 2015 at 4:55 pm)Pyrrho Wrote: Two things: It is quite different when one mangles one's own language and when one mangles someone else's. This is not entirely dissimilar to the fact that a black person can call a black person a "nigger" without it being the same as a white person calling a black person a "nigger." Or a Jew can tell Jewish jokes that nonJews would be well-advised to not tell.
As a non-native speaker of French, I would personally not try to innovate the French language much, and, the vast majority of the time, would try to conform to the proper standards, insofar as I reasonably can. Of course, you are free to offend the French as much as you wish to do.
I will readily agree that mangling your own language is a different proposition from mangling someone else's.
As far as my being "free to offend the French as much as (I) wish to do"....I wish to do no such thing, and I think I spelled that out when I said that I try to specifically use accents as much as possible out of sensitivity to French Canadian feelings.
My good friend in France overlooks my lack of use of typed accents because of the keyboard difficulty, he just laughs at me and he knows I love French, besides, we speak it, on video, rather than just typing it, much of the time.
Quote:The fact that American English is different from British English does not make either wrong. Both have evolved since America was started. And according to scholarly research, in some ways, the British have altered the language more than the Americans have
Again, I don't disagree with that. The same is true, yet again, for Québec French. It is, in many ways, closer to "Old French" than the french that is spoken in France, today, because the speakers of Colonial french were, in large measure, isolated from France after emigrating to the New World, and the french spoken in France, today, evolved along different lines.
Quote:Languages evolve, and when they are evolving in relatively isolated areas, they tend to diverge. Modern communication is helping to reunite languages, as Americans are both influenced by British TV and films, and the British are influenced by American TV and films. And, of course, there is also such mutual influence with Australia, New Zealand, Canada (which, being close to the U.S., is and has been more like the U.S. than the others tend to be), and other places where English is spoken, which communicate with each other in the modern world
You're kind of preaching to the choir, here, Pyrrho.
I will be the first to defend the "living" nature of languages as they evolve; I have done so, repeatedly.
I think your response is due to the fact that I utilized the term "bastardized"
which sounds like it has a negative connotation;
but I'm merely acknowledging that bastardization of language DOES occur;
I am not necessarily saying it is entirely a bad thing.
Bastardizing a language is part of what makes it a "living" language.
Now, I DO dislike to see literacy, grammar, vocabulary, and comprehension being lost, as language evolves;
I wish it could be said that ALL linguistic evolution occured without something being sacrificed, along the way.
But the mere fact of evolution of different dialects does NOT make a language invalid, to me.
I've posted this video, before, I will re-post it to make my point,
it is a husband and wife couple who play music together at a francophone festival in Missouri.
He is Missouri French, himself, by birth,
she is not, but she studied Standard French for years before meeting him,
and she had to open her mind to the differences between the french she had studied,
versus the french she heard her husband and his family, speaking,
and realize the legitimacy of the french of his dialect:
So, that being said, I must object to this part of your reply:
Quote:The idea that Americans have bastardized the English language is just silly propaganda that has more to do with bitterness over losing the colonies than it has truth to it.
bold, mine.
If you want to argue the legitimacy of American English vs British English....fine. I'll acknowledge that.
If you want to argue that the Brits bastardize their own language....fine. I've acknowledged that, too.
But that part of your reply (above) was an OPINION, and is entirely a matter of perspective.
The Americans HAVE bastardized the English language.
It didn't bastardize itself.
And I'm okay with it.
I bastardize the English language, myself, all the time, and not always on purpose.
But at least I own it.
I would never suggest that the idea that the bastardization of English
of which I myself, am guilty,
is nothing more than mere "propaganda" born of someone else's bitterness.
You have indeed hit upon the word that is the source of our apparent disagreement. I believe you are misusing the word "bastardize."
Here is Oxford:
Quote:bastardize
verb [WITH OBJECT] 1(often as adjective bastardized)Corrupt or debase(a language, art form, etc.), typically by adding new elements:a strange, bastardized form of French
Their example is rather fitting for our discussion, but unimportant to my point. To "bastardize" something is not merely to change it. The word itself conveys also a judgement about the change. It means that the change is making the thing worse.
So, it sounds like it has a negative connotation because it is saying that the change is negative.
Notice, the word "evolve" is quite different:
Quote:evolve
verb 1Develop gradually:[NO OBJECT]:the company has evolved into a major chemical manufacturerthe Gothic style evolvedfrom the Romanesque[WITH OBJECT]:each school must evolve its own way of working
Here there is the concept of change, but notice there is no negative judgement about the change. In fact, if anything, there is a suggestion of improvement rather than the idea that the thing is being debased.
So when you say that a language is "bastardized," you are not merely saying that it is changed. You are also suggesting that the change is for the worse, not the better, nor even neutral.
My objection is to the idea that a change in language must be for the worse. But that is what you are saying when you say that the language is bastardized. I think from the context of your post that you mean merely that it changes, rather than that it changes for the worse. In which case, you mean something other than that the language is bastardized.
Applying this to my previous post, when I stated that it is a silly claim that Americans have bastardized English, I mean that it is silly to suppose that current British English is the source and current American English is a bastardization (i.e., a change for the worse) of that "pure" form. It is factually wrong in the sense that both have gradually changed from a common source (a common ancestor, to keep with the evolutionary metaphor), and modern British English has changed from that common source in some ways that modern American English has not. So if a change from the original is a "bastardization" (which I object to for the reasons above), then modern British English has been bastardized, in some respects, more than modern American English has been bastardized. But, of course, the nonjudgmental fact is, both are derived from a common source, and their paths diverged. But, we again are at the conclusion that it is just false to claim that British English is inherently correct and American English is wrong insofar as it differs from modern British English. Both are different from what they were when America was first settled by British people.
"A wise man ... proportions his belief to the evidence."
— David Hume, An Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding, Section X, Part I.