(December 17, 2010 at 2:09 pm)DeistPaladin Wrote: Ignoring the logical fallacy of the spurious assumption that correlation = causation, can anyone tell me what this allegation is even based on? I'm not aware of any homophobic great civilizations that fell into decline after lifting its taboo. In fact, I can think of one prominent counter-example. Rome was a thriving pagan/gay-friendly empire that collapsed after its embrace of Christianity.
Did not the western Roman empire collapse a century after it adopted Christianity (a quite homophobic religion) as the state religion?
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