(January 12, 2016 at 11:02 am)Kingpin Wrote:(January 12, 2016 at 1:24 am)Rhythm Wrote: @Kingpin
I've cringed everytime I've seen that comment made, can't stand it anymore, lol. Proven and provable are distinct terms. You have altered the conjugation of the word in order to stick him with a claim he has not actually made, implying that his definition of terms is somehow self refuting or inconsistent when, in fact...you're engaging in sophistry.
It would be as if I'd said. "A ball is a round object" and you asked me for proof. I could only restate that my -definition- for a ball was "a round object". You may think that the term ball encompasses more than just round objects...as you might think that legitimate knowledge encompasses more than just what is provable, but you would not be disagreeing over a point of fact, nor would you be discussing a logical misstep.
You could, instead, accept that this is his definition for legitimate knowledge and mention all of the ways that -whatever- you feel is excluded is -provable-....and you would not need to prove whatever that is in order to do so (and amusingly this is all that needs to be done to show that the statement "all legitimate knowledge is provable"...is provable. Show what one considers to be legitimate knowledge, and show that it is at least provable). You could, conversely, accept that whatever it is you feel is excluded is simply not legitimate knowledge by his definition. Failure to do either, or in this case, some nonsense about proving his statement can yield nothing -other- than confusion..you two could discuss "legitimate knowledge" all day long and you would not be discussing the same thing.
Aquinas was able to allow for more than one type of knowledge, I think you can manage as well. To that end:
"All intellectual knowledge is either speculative, or practical". Aquinas, ofc, Summa Theologica.
I was more pointing out that the phrase itself is self-defeating. "All legitimate knowledge must be provable". If that statement itself is legitimate knowledge then it must be provable. If it is NOT legitimate knowledge then its pointless. It's akin to saying "all truth is relative". The statement either includes itself or excludes itself. If it includes itself, then that statement is also relative and not always true. If it excludes itself then not all truth is relative because it would be making an absolute statement while denying their existence.
Aw dammit, now I need to find a new signature. Thanks guys! (sigh . . . )
"The family that prays together...is brainwashing their children."- Albert Einstein