Ask an Audio geek

[AFTT47]

I do not understand why I am being fought on this.

My post has enough information to show my claim to be true and it only scratches the surface.  But I am done with this thread.  Fighting two gods is too much.

It's very simple actually: Because you are wrong. Worse still, you're doing exactly what a creationist does: Arguing against facts. You seem to have a mental block regarding the gaps between samples. If there are enough samples for the frequency you are sampling, it doesn't matter. The wave can be reconstructed at a fidelity that is superior to any analog technique. Or do you think all the measurements made which prove the concept works as advertised are "magic" too?

The error you are making is dissing something because you don't understand it - in spite of evidence to the contrary and even facts. If you operate that way, you're going to have a pretty messed-up picture of reality because no matter how smart you are, there are going to be things you don't understand. In those cases, defer to experts who do understand it or even better, to objective measurements and established facts. Both are available when it comes to the fidelity of digital audio. You're just plugging your ears and going, "nah, nah, nah."