(May 26, 2016 at 1:31 am)Redbeard The Pink Wrote:(May 25, 2016 at 3:41 am)Irrational Wrote: It's a matter of coming up with the most plausible explanation for the unaccounted difference in wage/earnings between both genders. The evidence is that there is, controlling for most other factors that have been considered to contribute to gender differences in this context, still a difference.
Even if that's the case, what you're describing is an earnings gap, not a wage gap. If there were a wage gap, then we would be able to look at the actual, by-the-hour wages and very directly see a disparity between what men make and what women make. Instead, you have people looking at earnings for various periods of time, accounting for as many non-discrimination-related factors as they can, then naming discrimination as the "most plausible" cause for the gap they can't explain. To me, that seems to be an argument from ignorance, once it all shakes out.
It's called Occam's razor. But it isn't even based on just guessing. There is empirical evidence for gender bias/discrimination in work-related settings.
As for wages vs. earnings, that's just red herring.
Quote:Besides, if men and women's wages are the same for the same jobs, but women's average earnings are less, and the reason for that is discrimination, that means the men are paying the women the same wage and then finding some sneaky way to somehow make sure they still don't make as much money in the long run. That is some conspiracy-theory-level illogic right there, not to mention the "how would that even work?" part.
It's not a conspiracy theory because there is no conscious conspiring going on. This is mainly due to gender bias in the context of work performance and quality.
