Muslim Imam calls for Homosexual death 3 weeks before pulse nigh club shooting

[Drich]

So what did Jesus say on the cross just before he died?
When he tasted the wine, he said, “It is finished.” Then he bowed his head and died.

Now back to Mat 5:18 Jesus came to 'full fill the law and in your version verse 18 says  I assure you that nothing will disappear from the law until heaven and earth are gone. The law will not lose even the smallest letter or the smallest part of a letter until it has all been done.


Which again was completed on the cross when Jesus died.

Yes the law remains as heaven and earth are here, but it has indeed changed as the law has been full filled. Which means a NT Christian (one who has received the atonement offered by Christ) is not judged by the law as a means to righteousness. Or the law is not used to 'judge the morality' of the sanctified believer. When a believer is judged it is the righteousness of Christ himself that is judged.

Or do you not understand the divide between OT Judaism and NT Christianity. If NT Christians were to follow ALL the laws and if none of them changed then we'd be OT jews. as it is our dietary, social and even moral laws all have changed. So clearly your interpretation of Mat 5 is wrong.

"It is finished" does not mean the same as "Now that I am dead everything that God said to Moses is now null and void." "It" is not specified, but in the context of him being crucified to death, it seems more likely to mean his ordeal, or his whole life.

In the sermon on the moutn, Jesus didn't say "...until I am dead." he said "...until all heaven and earth have passed."

This seems like you aren't joining the dots, you're adding extra dots to draw what you want to see. I don't buy it.

That's not what Christ said... He said the law will remain as long as the earth remain, BUT IT SHALL NOT BE CHANGED in the least little way till all is complete. Meaning once "all if complete/it is finished (on the cross) the law is open for change even though it remains. And it does remain as all the unsaved are judged against what the laws says. Christ offers freedom from the law through atonement. which would not be necessary if he abolished the law. No the law has to remain in order for atonement to work, In order for their to be a separation from the saved and unsaved. If Christ abolished the law then all would be saved, but again not the case. Only those who accepts the atonement offered are saved from the law and the consequences the law demands..

Otherwise again if Christ meant to say what you think this passage in Mat 5 means, then their could be no gentile believers. animals still had to be sacrificed for sins, and their would have to be a temple... In other words your interpretation of mat 5 does not account for the changes and difference that have always separated OT Judaism and NT Christianity. this is not a new thing. The changes started immediately after the death and resurrection of Christ.

How else with your understanding of Mat 5 can you account for the differences between Christianity and OT Judaism?