RE: The "Cultural Context" Excuse
August 9, 2016 at 4:02 pm
(This post was last modified: August 9, 2016 at 4:05 pm by Huggy Bear.)
(August 9, 2016 at 9:56 am)Rev. Rye Wrote: It's also worth noting that I decided to look up the word he insists meant "seduction" in Strong's Concordance. Here's what I found:
nasha'
Pronunciation nä·shä' (Key)
Part of Speech verb
TWOT Reference: 1425
KJV Translation Count — Total: 16x
The KJV translates Strongs H5377 in the following manner: deceive (12x), greatly (1x), beguiled me (1x), seize (1x), utterly (1x).
Outline of Biblical Usage [?]
to beguile, deceive
(Niphal) to be beguiled
(Hiphil) to beguile, deceive
(Qal) utterly (infinitive)
Strong’s Definitions [?](Strong’s Definitions Legend)
נָשָׁא nâshâʼ, naw-shaw'; a primitive root; to lead astray, i.e. (mentally) to delude, or (morally) to seduce:—beguile, deceive, × greatly, × utterly.[/b]
It's looking more and more like special pleading for him to insist it means "seduce."
*emphasis mine* (also put the relevant parts in blind-as-bat red)
I guess it was only inevitable for you to make a fool of yourself as people usually tend to do when they have no idea of the subject matter they are discussing.
Also I never insisted anything, I simply stated that 'beguile' and 'seduce' are synonymous, no if and's or but's about that, don't believe me? look in a thesaurus.