The "Cultural Context" Excuse

[Crossless2.0]

I'm not your search engine monkey. But here's a road map:

The Hebrew word 'alma' (the word used in Isaiah 7:14) is generally translated as 'young woman'. Yes, most young women would have been presumed to be virgins, but . . .
The Hebrew word 'betulah' actually means 'virgin' and presumably would have been used in Isaiah if that is the plain meaning the author wished to convey.
Furthermore, each of the nine times 'alma' is used, the plain meaning is 'young woman'.


The Greek word used in the Septuagint (which would have been the source "Matthew" would have known of) is 'parthenos'. You're the amateur philologist. You figure it out.

The Messiah predates the new testament, the virgin birth was foretold back in Genesis buddy. Also the rejection of the Messiah by the Jews is also foretold in the old testament.

Are the Jews also complicit in this whole conspiracy narrative that you've created?

Were the Romans also involved in this conspiracy, since it was also foretold in the old testament that the Messiah would be crucified, and that "not a bone should be broken"?

*edit*

Also forgot to add that it would require 40 different writers over a span of 1500 years to be in collusion in order for all the pieces to fit together coherently.

Conspiracy narrative?!? Pointing out that the Septuagint is how knowledge of Hebrew scripture was largely disseminated in a time and area of the world in which Greek was the language read by the educated elites is hardly a conspiracy. It's not even the fleeting whiff of a conspiracy. But nice try.