RE: Question about Quantum Eraser
September 4, 2016 at 10:39 am
(This post was last modified: September 4, 2016 at 10:42 am by Anomalocaris.)
I think the answer would be yes if the wave functions in question describes local measurable properties which are governed together by some physical law. So for example, if you have two particles that observe Pauli's exclusion principle, and they have the same quantum numbers in all other respects except spin state, then you know if you determine the spin state of one, then you also collapse the spin state of the other.
But I am not sure the properties you ascribe to the two particles are governed by some law that would necessarily force one particle to behave in someway relative to the know property of the other.
Btw, this is from someone who took his last physics class 20 years ago and has been in industrial and management consulting during the last 17 years. So don't get on my case too hard if I am wrong.
But I am not sure the properties you ascribe to the two particles are governed by some law that would necessarily force one particle to behave in someway relative to the know property of the other.
Btw, this is from someone who took his last physics class 20 years ago and has been in industrial and management consulting during the last 17 years. So don't get on my case too hard if I am wrong.
