(March 15, 2017 at 7:40 pm)Huggy74 Wrote:(March 15, 2017 at 5:42 pm)The Valkyrie Wrote: If he was in her womb and she needed to give birth to him, even without "biological components", she is still the mother, surrogate, or not.*emphasis mine*
Which brings up the question, once again: Why was Mary used in the first place? Surely god could have created his own Earthly avatar, fully formed, without going through the process of knocking up a man's wife?
Yes, and calling her "woman" and not "mother" or even "Mary", is an indicator of being a spiteful little shit.
The short answer is to fulfill the scripture.
Jesus's purpose was to be the 'goel' for mankind.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goel
Quote:Goel (the Go’el HaDahm) is a Hebrew term which comes from the word lig'ol ("to redeem"), hence meaning "redeemer", which in the Hebrew Bible and the rabbinical tradition denotes a person who as the nearest relative of another is charged with the duty of restoring the rights of another and avenging his wrongs.
Quote:The obligations of the goel include the duty to redeem the relative from slavery, if the latter had been obliged to sell himself into serfdom (Leviticus 25: 48-49); to repurchase the property of a relative who had had to sell it because of poverty; to avenge the blood of his relative; to marry his brother's widow in order to have a son for his brother, in case the brother had not got any son to pass his name forth (Deuteronomy 25:5-6); and to receive the restitution if the injured relative had died (Numbers 5:8).
If Jesus was to redeem all that Adam had lost, then he had to be related to Adam.
Fulfill scripture, you say?
Are you aware of the term retcon?
