Objective morality as a proper basic belief

[SteveII]

1. Yes.
2. That does not logically follow. God has rights, authority, responsibility, knowledge, and perfect moral clarity that we do not have.

Alright then, now we have that god will not tell us to do something immoral, correct?
My next question then is, will he ever change his morality? For instance, will he command people to do something (thereby making it moral) and then later command them to do the opposite (thereby making the opposite moral and the original immoral)?

And I thought of another one, if god does something and gives his reason for doing it, can I do the same thing if I have the same reason he did?

God could not tell us to do something immoral. Since his nature can't change, every command will be moral at the time of the command or for the intended duration of the command. 

You do not have the same rights, authority, responsibility, knowledge, and perfect moral clarity that God does, so...No.

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Alright then, now we have that god will not tell us to do something immoral, correct?
My next question then is, will he ever change his morality? For instance, will he command people to do something (thereby making it moral) and then later command them to do the opposite (thereby making the opposite moral and the original immoral)?

And I thought of another one, if god does something and gives his reason for doing it, can I do the same thing if I have the same reason he did?

Note all the assertions in Steves argument if only he could answer in a way that does not collapse back into the dilemma .

What rights? What grants him those rights? why should anyone care about his rights ?

Same goes for authority

Having a responsibility does make it moral

Having knowledge does not make the one moral  

perfect moral clarity begs the question and even having clarity does not make one moral

And none of this matters because it's arbitrarily assigned

You didn't read back far enough. I posted this earlier:

The first horn "is something good because the gods will it" or
The second horn "do the gods will it because it is good?” but now 
The third option (that has no unwanted conclusion): it is not God's will that defines the good but his unchanging nature that governs his will and his commands to us. 

With a third option, there is no dilemma. 

Are God's eternal unchanging moral properties arbitrary? Could they have been any other way? Perhaps, perhaps not--I don't think that is clear. I don't think it matters however, because you need God's nature to be arbitrary not in the sense that if could have been different, but that it still can be different.