Objective morality as a proper basic belief

[RoadRunner79]

He was trying to keep his wife from harm.  Would that be moral under your axiomatic basis of harm? 
Can you please explain in the example where the harm or intention to harm was to meet your basis?

If he was trying to keep his wife from harm he wouldn't be cheating on her.  Kind of basic stuff buddy.  Deceit is a dead give away that a person knows what they're doing is harmful, in addition to being yet another vector of harm in and of itself. That you have to ask suggests that your moral agency is......lacking.

So where is the harm, if she doesn't find out? You seem to be needing to add a lot to your basis of harm to make work. It's not sufficient to find harm (by some stretch), and claim that as the basis. And I agree, it is pretty basic stuff. I'm not making the case, that this is not immoral, but that using harm as the basis, doesn't equate.