(September 29, 2017 at 9:43 am)Lutrinae Wrote:(September 29, 2017 at 9:38 am)alpha male Wrote: http://www.nationalreview.com/article/41...mas-sowell
We are told that such riots are a result of black poverty and white racism. But in fact — for those who still have some respect for facts — black poverty was far worse, and white racism was far worse, prior to 1960. But violent crime within black ghettos was far less.
Murder rates among black males were going down — repeat, down — during the much-lamented 1950s, while it went up after the much celebrated 1960s, reaching levels more than double what they had been before. Most black children were raised in two-parent families prior to the 1960s. But today the great majority of black children are raised in one-parent families.
Is this some sort of racist way of saying black crime was less during a time when black people knew their place as opposed to when black people gained their freedom from being oppressed by the white man?
It may be even dumber than that actually since crime overall went up from the 50's and 60's into the 80's and 90's, and then it has been dropping since the 90's. Pointing to crime when the topic at hand is police brutality and treatment of minorities, is nothing more than a red herring.
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