RE: A question about original sin.
August 21, 2011 at 6:33 pm
(This post was last modified: August 21, 2011 at 6:40 pm by C Rod.)
(August 19, 2011 at 11:06 pm)Rhythm Wrote: I'm still wondering which nations you're referring too. We have no evidence of any nation ever being destroyed by magic. Further, why is gods destruction so limited in range? We have evidence of long lasting pagan civilizations in just about every corner of the world. Did he decide to give them a pass? Why destruction for some and prosperity for others. It doesn't seem as if gods justice was applied very equally, if it was applied at all.
It was Ezekiel 23. The nations were destroyed because they turned away from God(means they worshiped other gods and sacrificed there sons to said gods).
Basically all the nations are the same, be it they do this or do that, they are sinning against God. He probably did apply justice to every nation but i think if they wrote of every action it would be to long.
(August 21, 2011 at 6:25 pm)Rhythm Wrote: God doesn't require context. Or does he?
Is the context for your benefit or his?
(August 21, 2011 at 6:28 pm)FaithNoMore Wrote:(August 21, 2011 at 6:06 pm)C Rod Wrote: "I would like to know of any way to conform or act on a persons that would have an affect enough for change?" I think that question is relative. If we are to value experience and understanding , and not just be given limitless amounts of knowledge than how is dramatic change or influence to come.
Sorry, I don't follow what you're trying to say...
I really cant put the question any clearer, if possible could you answer how you would deal with these humans knowing only there first offense? Knowing every single action they would make?
What would be justice against Hitler?
What would be justice of a criminal that you know would be a repeat offender?
Or a child who would always disobey?
Or a serial killer?
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