Disproving Odin - An Experiment in arguing with a theist with Theist logic

[I_am_not_mafia]

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Germanic_languages

The Germanic languages are a branch of the Indo-European language family

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_languages

The Indo-European family includes most of the modern languages of Europe; exceptions include Hungarian, Finnish, Estonian, several minor Uralic languages, Turkish (a Turkic language), Basque (a language isolate), and Maltese (a Semitic language). The Indo-European family is also represented in Asia with the exception of East and Southeast Asia. It was predominant in ancient Anatolia (present-day Turkey)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anatolia

The ancient inhabitants of Anatolia spoke the now-extinct Anatolian languages, which were largely replaced by the Greek language starting from classical antiquity and during the Hellenistic, Roman and Byzantine periods. Major Anatolian languages included Hittite, Luwian, and Lydian among other more poorly attested relatives.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hittite_language

Hittite was written in an adapted form of Peripheral Akkadian cuneiform orthography from Northern Syria.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Akkadian

Akkadian (/əˈkeɪdiən/ akkadû,)is an extinct East Semitic language that was spoken in ancient Mesopotamia (Akkad, Assyria, Isin, Larsa and Babylonia)

Therefor it is my conclusion that Odin is derived from Pagan Babylonian religion,

But all you have done is traced the evolution of a language yet somehow this means that 'Odin is derived from Pagan Babylonian religion'?

With that I rest my case.

I have an equally convincing argument for you ...